All my life I have heard that the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost are one divine being. Biblical evidence for this, however, points overwhelmingly to the contrary. Let us first look at the glaringly obvious problems with the concept that Jesus as a divine being in all respects equal to God.
1. Why the need for three Gods, namely the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost? If God is omnipotent and omniscient, then why does he need two clones (Jesus and the Holy Ghost) to help him do the job? Surely he should be able to cope on his own?
2. If Jesus is equal to God, then why is he so subservient, dancing to the every tune of God? Why does he pray to God and in all respects is the servant of God?
3. Mar 13:32 “But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.” How can this be possible if Jesus is equal to God in all respects as the Church teaches?
4. If Jesus is God then he is his own father, which implies that he begat himself.
5. James 1:13 “Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:” Yet Jesus was tempted by the Devil (evil) in the desert.
6. Luk 18:19 “And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.” Surely this implies that Jesus is saying that He is not God?
7. Jesus started his ministry as a follower of John the Baptist and eventually got baptized by him. God Almighty was a follower of one of his creations (John the Baptist, a mere moratl) and allowed himself to be baptized by him?
8. Why the hierarchy amongst the Holy Trinity?
Luk 12:10 “And whosoever shall speak a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but unto him that blasphemeth against the Holy Ghost it shall not be forgiven.” This implies that the Holy Ghost is more important than the Son of Man (who happens to be equal to God).
9. Joh 5:30 “I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.” But he is God’s equal?
10. Joh 20:17 “… I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.”
Christian apologists will no doubt argue that I am forgetting that Jesus came to earth in a frail, human from, hence all the subservience to God and human character traits. Now that in itself poses another question. Why would an almighty God feel the need to appear on earth in a human form? What could he possibly have hoped to achieve as a human being that he could not achieve so much better as a God?
God gives us a very direct instruction in the 5th commandment:
Exo 20:12 “Honour thy father and thy mother: that thy days may be long upon the land which the LORD thy God giveth thee.”
It all sounds very noble. But then along comes Jesus:
Mat 8:22 “But Jesus said unto him, Follow me; and let the dead bury their dead.” (To a man who was asking permission to honour his deceased father by giving him a descent burial.)
Mat 10:35 For I am come to set a man at variance against his father, and the daughter against her mother, and the daughter in law against her mother in law.
Mat 10:36 And a man's foes shall be they of his own household.
Mat 10:37 He that loveth father or mother more than me is not worthy of me: and he that loveth son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me.
But the Church tells me that Jesus is God. If that is true, then God is indeed either very confused and contradicts himself or he changed his mind about that 5th commandment or he is schizophrenic. Jesus’ relationship with his own earthly parents was not all that wonderful either. (Mat 12:46-50)
Mat 28:19 “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:”
“There you go! Clear, black-on-white evidence of the Holy Trinity.”, I already hear the Christian apologists retaliating. However, the last three verses of Matthew is widely accepted by scholars as later additions to the gospel for the following reasons:
a) “…teach all nations,” In Mat 10:5 Jesus commands his disciples to stay away from the Gentiles and to rather focus on the lost sheep of Israel. He even referred to the Canaanite woman and her sick child who came to him for help as dogs. Why the sudden change of heart? It smacks suspiciously of a later addition added to accommodate the obsession of Paul with the Gentiles, which is clearly contradictory with the teaching of Jesus. The “…teach all nations” concept is also found in Mark 16:15, interestingly enough, amongst the last twelve verses of Mark, which is also unanimously rejected by scholars as it does not appear in the oldest copies of Mark.
b) If the divinity of Jesus is so self-evident as this verse would have it, why the fierce and at times violent dispute over the issue for centuries? It was only after the bitter Arian controversy at the Council of Nicea in 325CE that the Pagan emperor Constantine intervened and declared Jesus and God to be “of the same substance”. Thus the Holy Trinity became accepted doctrine by the Church. Arius was declared a heretic and exiled to France. However, Constantine later changed his mind about the Arians and lifted the exile. Had this verse been an authentic part of the Gospel of Matthew, all the Alexandrians had to do was point it out to the Arians and case closed.
c) Eusebius (265 A.D. -- 339 A.D), Bishop of Caesarea , some 17 times in his works prior to the Council of Nicea, quotes Matthew 28:19 as "Go and make disciples of all nations in my name" without mentioning the Trinity baptism command, e.g. in Oration in Praise of Emperor Constantine, 16:8 and Church History, Book III, 5:2. In his writings after the council of Nicea, the traditional form including the Trinity baptism formula is very often found.
Of course, there is always 1 John 5:7-8 which is undeniable proof of the divinity of Jesus, not so?
1Jn 5:7 For there are three that bear record[ in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
1Jn 5:8 And there are three that bear witness in earth], the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.
(Brackets inserted by myself)
This is probably the sneakiest, craftiest example of ‘creative editing’ in the whole New Testament. It is referred to by scholars as the Johannine Comma. All scholars consider it to be spurious, and it is not included in modern critical editions of the Greek text, or in the English versions based upon them, for example, the English Standard Version.
The original verse:
1Jn 5:7 For there are three that bear record, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.
The bracketed portion above all of a sudden started appearing in Bible translations in the 14th century. This basically proves that the Holy Trinity is a fabrication and latter addition of the Church. Christian apologists have come up with umpteen explanations of why this is genuine. Rather than boring you with the details of that, ask yourself this simple question: What is more likely, that the Church would omit such a crucial piece of evidence for the Holy Trinity for 14 centuries and then remember and include it in the Bible or that they would include it from day one? Buckling under the pressure of scholars, the bracketed portion has already been removed from some Bibles. Others still have it, but printed in italics to highlight the fact that it is doubtful.
For over 600 years the Church was quite comfortable to have this modified version of the text appear in the Bible(s), knowing full well that it was a later addition and that it was spurious. It can only be for one reason – to push their man made agenda for the Holy Trinity and the divinity of Jesus. How can one not call it deception? But still we hear that the Bible is the inerrant, unwavering, infallible, unadulterated Word of God...
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